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Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition, Tortora Test Bank

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Test Bank For Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition, Tortora. Note: This is not a text book. Description: ISBN-13: 978-0321929150, ISBN-10: 0321929152.

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Test Bank Microbiology Introduction 12th Tortora

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Chapter 1 The Microbial World and You
1) Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT
A) infection.
B) decomposition of organic material.
C) O2 production.
D) food production.
E) smog production.
2) Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT
A) yeast.
B) protozoan.
C) bacterium.
D) mushroom.
E) virus.
3) The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is
A) microbe.
B) bacterium.
C) virus.
D) pathogen.
E) infection.
4) Common commercial benefits of microorganisms include synthesis of
A) riboflavin.
B) acetone.
C) insulin.
D) aspirin.
E) riboflavin, acetone and insulin.
5) Commercial utilization of microbial products has become increasingly popular due to their environmentally friendly nature. Production of these products which are readily degraded and, thus, non-toxic typically utilizes
A) enzymes.
B) organic acids.
C) organic solvents.
D) soap.
E) alcohol.
6) The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by
A) Robert Koch.
B) Ignaz Semmelweis.
C) Aristotle.
D) Carolus Linnaeus.
E) Louis Pasteur.
7) In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the
A) genus.
B) domain name.
C) species.
D) kingdom.
E) family name.
8) A prokaryotic cell may possess each of the following cellular components EXCEPT
A) flagella.
B) a nucleus.
C) ribosomes.
D) a cell wall.
E) a cell membrane.
9) Which of the following is NOT associated with viruses?
A) organelles
B) nucleic acid
C) envelope
D) chemical reactions
E) protein coat
10 The bacterial shape of the cells in the scanning electron micrograph shown in Figure 1.1 would best be described as
A) bacillus.
B) spiral.
C) coccus.
D) ovoid.
E) columnar.
Chapter 2 Chemical Principles
1) Which of the following statements about the atom C is FALSE?
A) It has 6 protons in its nucleus.
B) It has 12 neutrons in its nucleus.
C) It has 6 electrons orbiting the nucleus.
D) Its atomic number is 6.
E) Its atomic weight is 12.
2) Table 2.1
O C H
Using the information in Table 2.1, calculate the molecular weight of ethanol, C2H5OH.
A) 96
B) 46
C) 34
D) 33
E) The answer cannot be determined.
3) Antacids neutralize acid by the following reaction. Identify the salt in the following equation:
Mg(OH)2 + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2O
A) Mg(OH)2
B) HCl
C) MgCl2
D) H2O
E) None of the answers is correct.
4) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Salts readily dissolve in water.
B) Water molecules are formed by hydrolysis.
C) Water freezes from the top down.
D) Water is formed as a part of a dehydration synthesis reaction.
E) Water is a polar molecule.
5) Which of the following is the type of bond holding K+ and I– ions in KI?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
6) Which of the following is the type of bond between molecules of water in a beaker of water?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
7) What is the type of bond holding hydrogen and oxygen atoms together in a single H2O molecule?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
8) Identify the following reaction: Glucose + Fructose → Sucrose + Water
A) dehydration synthesis reaction
B) hydrolysis reaction
C) exchange reaction
D) reversible reaction
E) ionic reaction
9) Identify the following reaction: Lactose + H2O → Glucose + Galactose
A) dehydration synthesis reaction
B) hydrolysis reaction
C) exchange reaction
D) reversible reaction
E) ionic reaction
10) Identify the following reaction: HCl + NaHCO3 → NaCl + H2CO3
A) dehydration synthesis reaction
B) hydrolysis reaction
C) exchange reaction
D) reversible reaction
E) ionic reaction
Chapter 3 Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
1) Which of the following is NOT equal to 1 mm?
A) 0.001 m
B) 106 nm
C) 0.1 cm
D) 100 μm
E) 10-3 m
2) What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light microscope?
A) ocular lens
B) objective lens
C) specimen
D) illuminator
3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) nigrosin – negative stain
B) methylene blue – simple stain
C) acidic dye – capsule stain
D) basic dye – negative stain
E) crystal violet – simple stain
4) Which of the following places the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order?
1-Alcohol-acetone
2-Crystal violet
3-Safranin
4-Iodine
A) 1-2-3-4
B) 2-1-4-3
C) 2-4-1-3
D) 4-3-2-1
E) 1-3-2-4
5) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) alcohol-acetone — decolorizer
B) crystal violet — basic dye
C) safranin — acid dye
D) iodine — mordant
E) carbolfuchsin — basic dye
6) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the acid-fast stain?
A) It is used to identify members of the genus Mycobacterium.
B) Acid-fast cells retain the primary dye after treatment with acid-alcohol.
C) If cells are acid-fast, they are gram-negative.
D) Acid-fast cells appear red in a completed acid-fast stain.
E) Non-acid-fast microbes appear blue in a completed acid-fast stain.
7) The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to
A) remove the simple stain.
B) make the bacterial cells larger.
C) make the flagella visible.
D) prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.
E) make gram-negative cells visible.
8) Which of the following places the steps in the correct sequence?
1-Staining
2-Making a smear
3-Fixing
A) 1-2-3
B) 3-2-1
C) 2-3-1
D) 1-3-2
E) The order is unimportant.
9) The negative stain is used to
A) visualize endospores.
B) determine Gram reaction.
C) determine flagella arrangement.
D) visualize capsules.
E) determine cell size.
10) Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in which microscope?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) fluorescence microscope
E) electron microscope

Chapter 4 Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
1) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?
A) Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.
B) They lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
C) They typically have a circular chromosome.
D) They reproduce by binary fission.
E) They lack a plasma membrane.
2) Each of the following statements concerning the gram-positive cell wall is true EXCEPT
A) it maintains the shape of the cell.
B) it is sensitive to lysozyme.
C) it protects the cell in a hypertonic environment.
D) it contains teichoic acids.
E) it is sensitive to penicillin.
3) Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl?
A) Sucrose will move into the cell from a higher to a lower concentration.
B) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.
C) Water will move out of the cell.
D) Water will move into the cell.
E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.
4) A gram-positive bacterium suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This trait most likely occurred due to acquisition of new genetic information through
A) conjugation.
B) binary fission.
C) meisosis.
D) transformation.
E) transduction.
5) By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?
A) simple diffusion
B) facilitated diffusion
C) active transport
D) extracellular enzymes
E) aquaporins
6) Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of most bacterial plasma membranes?
A) site of energy production
B) composed of a phospholipid bilayer
C) contains proteins
D) contains cholesterol
E) is selectively permeable
7) Which one of the following organisms has a cell wall?
A) protoplasts
B) fungi
C) L forms
D) mycoplasmas
E) animal cells
8) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Endospores are for reproduction.
B) Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes by producing a dormant period with no growth.
C) Endospores are easily stained in a Gram stain.
D) A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing.
E) A cell can produce many endospores.
9) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) endoplasmic reticulum — internal transport
B) Golgi complex — secretion
C) mitochondria — ATP production
D) centrosome — food storage
E) lysosome — digestive enzymes
10) Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?
A) nucleus
B) mitochondrion
C) Golgi complex
D) vacuole
E) cell wall
Chapter 5 Microbial Metabolism
1) Which of the following compounds is NOT an enzyme?
A) dehydrogenase
B) cellulase
C) coenzyme A
D) β-galactosidase
E) sucrase
2) Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1?
A) isocitric acid and α-ketoglutaric acid
B) α-ketoglutaric acid and NAD+
C) NAD+
D) NADH
E) NADH and isocitric acid
3) Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source?
A) photoheterotroph – light
B) photoautotroph – CO2
C) chemoautotroph – Fe2+
D) chemoheterotroph – glucose
E) chemoautotroph-NH3
4) Which of the following statements about anaerobic respiration is FALSE?
A) It yields lower amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration.
B) The complete Kreb’s cycle is utilized.
C) It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor.
D) It generates ATP.
E) It requires cytochromes.
5) What type of reaction is in Figure 5.2?
A) decarboxylation
B) transamination
C) dehydrogenation
D) oxidation
E) reduction
6) What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration?
A) It is reduced to lactic acid.
B) It reacts with oxaloacetate to form citrate.
C) It is oxidized in the electron transport chain.
D) It is catabolized in glycolysis.
E) It is converted into acetyl CoA.
7) Figure 5.3
How would a noncompetitive inhibitor interfere with a reaction involving the enzyme shown in Figure 5.3?
A) It would bind to a.
B) It would bind to b.
C) It would bind to c.
D) It would bind to d.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
8) How is ATP generated in the reaction shown in Figure 5.4?
A) glycolysis
B) fermentation
C) photophosphorylation
D) oxidative phosphorylation
E) substrate-level phosphorylation
9) Fatty acids are oxidized in
A) the Krebs cycle.
B) the electron transport chain.
C) glycolysis.
D) the pentose phosphate pathway.
E) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.
10) Figure 5.5
Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Chapter 6 Microbial Growth
1) Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2?
A) a
B) b
C) c
2) In Figure 6.1,which line best depicts an obligate anaerobe in the presence of O2?
A) a
B) b
C) c
3) In Figure 6.1, which line shows the growth of an obligate aerobe incubated anaerobically?
A) a
B) b
C) c
4) In Figure 6.1, which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated aerobically?
A) a
B) b
C) c
5) In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a psychrotroph incubated at 0°C?
A) a
B) b
C) c
6) If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (15N), most of the radioactivity will be found in the cells’
A) DNA.
B) proteins.
C) phospholipids.
D) DNA and proteins.
E) DNA and phospholipids.
7) Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function?
A) nitrogen — needed for amino acid synthesis
B) phosphorus — incorporated into nucleic acids
C) sulfur — used for synthesis of thiamin and biotin
D) magnesium and potassium — required as cofactors for enzymes
E) phosphorus — used for production of carbohydrates.
8) Pathogenic bacteria isolated from the respiratory or intestinal tracts of humans are
A) strict aerobes that grow best in candle jars.
B) capnophiles that grow best in carbon dioxide incubators.
C) facultative anaerobes that require reducing media for growth.
D) strict aerobes that grow best in reducing media.
E) capnophiles that prefer highly oxygenated growth conditions.
9) The biosafety level (BSL) for most introductory microbiology laboratories is
A) BSL-1.
B) BSL-2.
C) BSL-3.
D) BSL-4.
10) The biosafety level (BSL) for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis bacteria, is
A) BSL-1.
B) BSL-2.
C) BSL-3.
D) BSL-4.
Chapter 7 The Control of Microbial Growth
1) Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions?
A) dry heat
B) autoclave
C) membrane filtration
D) pasteurization
E) freezing
2) Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death?
A) The cells in a population die at a constant rate.
B) All the cells in a culture die at once.
C) Not all of the cells in a culture are killed.
D) The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent.
E) The pattern varies depending on the species.
3) Which of the following chemical agents is used for sterilization?
A) alcohol
B) phenolics
C) ethylene oxide
D) chlorine
E) soap
4) Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs?
A) phenol
B) chlorine bleach
C) chlorhexidine
D) soap
E) glutaraldehyde
5) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?
A) bacteriostatic — kills vegetative bacterial cells
B) germicide — kills microbes
C) virucide — inactivates viruses
D) sterilant — destroys all living microorganisms
E) fungicide — kills yeasts and molds
6) The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to which of the following?
A) the formation of hypochlorous acid
B) the formation of hydrochloric acid
C) the formation of ozone
D) the formation of a hypochlorite ion
E) disruption of the plasma membrane
7) Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE?
A) Contaminating organic debris such as blood or sputum decrease effectiveness.
B) Some agents kill by denaturing microbial cell proteins.
C) Some agents affect microbial cell membranes by dissolving lipids.
D) Silver is used for treating antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
E) Alcohols effectively inactivate nonenveloped viruses by attacking lipids.
8) Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?
A) dry heat
B) pasteurization
C) autoclave
D) supercritical fluids
E) ethylene oxide
9) Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave?
A) It requires an excessively long time to achieve sterilization.
B) It cannot inactivate viruses.
C) It cannot kill endospores.
D) It cannot be used with heat-labile materials.
E) It cannot be used with glassware.
10) An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n)
A) disinfectant.
B) antiseptic.
C) aseptic.
D) fungicide.
E) virucide.
Chapter 8 Microbial Genetics
1) A gene is best defined as
A) any random segment of DNA.
B) three nucleotides that code for an amino acid.
C) a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product.
D) a sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product.
E) the RNA product of a transcribed section of DNA.
2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) DNA polymerase — makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template
B) RNA polymerase — makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template
C) DNA ligase — joins segments of DNA
D) transposase — insertion of DNA segments into DNA
E) DNA gyrase — coils and twists DNA
3) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction (5′ to 3′) only.
B) The leading strand of DNA is made continuously.
C) The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer.
D) DNA replication proceeds in only one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
E) Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromosome.
4) DNA is constructed of
A) a single strand of nucleotides with internal hydrogen bonding.
B) two complementary strands of nucleotides bonded A—C and G—T.
C) two strands of nucleotides running in an antiparallel configuration.
D) two strands of identical nucleotides in a parallel configuration with hydrogen bonds between them.
E) None of the answers is correct.
5) Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription?
A) a new strand of DNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) mRNA
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are products of transcription.
6) Which of the following statements about bacteriocins is FALSE?
A) The genes coding for them are on plasmids.
B) They cause food-poisoning symptoms.
C) Nisin is a bacteriocin used as a food preservative.
D) They can be used to identify certain bacteria.
E) Bacteriocins kill bacteria.
7) In Figure 8.1, which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring?
A) 1, 2, 3, and 9
B) 3 and 9
C) 4, 6, and 8
D) 4 and 8
E) 5 and 6
8) In Table 8.1, what will be the result of conjugation between cultures 1 and 2 (reminder: F+ has a different meaning than Hfr)?
A) 1 will remain the same;
2 will become F+, leucine–, histidine–
B) 1 will become F–, leu+, his+;
2 will become F+, leu–, his–
C) 1 will become F–, leu–, his–;
2 will remain the same
D) 1 will remain the same;
2 will become F+, leu+, his+
E) 1 will remain the same;
2 will become F+ and recombination may occur
9) In Table 8.1, if culture 1 mutates to Hfr, what will be the result of conjugation between the two cultures?
A) They will both remain the same.
B) 1 will become F+, leu+, his+;
2 will become F+, leu+, his+
C) 1 will remain the same;
recombination will occur in 2
D) 1 will become F–, leu+, his+;
2 will become Hfr, leu+, his+
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
10) An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called a(n)
A) inducible enzyme.
B) repressible enzyme.
C) restriction enzyme.
D) operator.
E) promoter.
Chapter 9 Biotechnology and DNA Technology
1) The following are steps used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step?
A) Collect DNA.
B) Digest with a restriction enzyme.
C) Perform electrophoresis.
D) Lyse cells.
E) Add stain.
2) How many pieces will EcoRI produce from the plasmid shown in Figure 9.1?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
3) In Figure 9.1, after digestion with the appropriate restriction enzyme, what is the smallest piece containing the entire ampicillin-resistance (amp) gene?
A) 0.17 kbp
B) 0.25 kbp
C) 1.08 kbp
D) 1.50 kbp
E) 3.00 kbp
4) In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 1 is
A) DNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) RNA polymerase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
E) spliceosome.
5) In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 2 is
A) DNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) RNA polymerase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
E) spliceosome.
6) The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is
A) DNA → mRNA.
B) mRNA → cDNA.
C) mRNA → protein.
D) DNA → DNA.
E) tRNA → mRNA.
7) Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product?
A) Endotoxin may be in the product.
B) It does not secrete most proteins.
C) Its genes are well known.
D) It cannot process introns.
E) Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins.
8) Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques?
A) frost retardant
B) Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide
C) nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation)
D) glyphosate-resistant crops
E) pectinase
9) If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in genetic engineering is
A) transformation of E. coli with Ti plasmid.
B) splicing T DNA into a plasmid.
C) transformation of an animal cell.
D) inserting the Ti plasmid into Agrobacterium.
E) inserting the Ti plasmid into a plant cell.
10) Biotechnology involves the
A) use of microorganisms to make desired products.
B) use of animal cells to make vaccines.
C) development of disease-resistant crop plants.
D) use of microorganisms to make desired products and the use of animal cells to make vaccines.
E) use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants.
Chapter 10 Classification of Microorganisms
1) Which of the following statements about archaea is FALSE?
A) They are prokaryotes.
B) They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
C) Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles.
D) They evolved before bacteria.
E) Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
2) Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria?
A) prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids
B) eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
C) prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
D) complex cellular structures
E) multicellular
3) If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that they
A) live in the same place.
B) evolved from a common ancestor.
C) will have different G-C ratios.
D) will both ferment lactose.
E) mated with each other.
4) What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi?
A) All members are photosynthetic.
B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter.
C) Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter.
D) All members are microscopic.
E) All members are macroscopic.
5) Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is FALSE?
A) They are multicellular.
B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells.
C) They undergo photosynthesis.
D) They use organic carbon sources.
E) They synthesize organic molecules.
6) Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is FALSE?
A) They are multicellular.
B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells.
C) They undergo photosynthesis.
D) They ingest nutrients through a mouth.
E) They are heterotrophs.
7) A genus can best be defined as
A) a taxon composed of families.
B) a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family.
C) a taxon belonging to a species.
D) a taxon comprised of classes.
E) the most specific taxon.
8) A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species
A) does not breed with other species.
B) has a limited geographical distribution.
C) can be distinguished from other bacterial species.
D) is a population of cells with similar characteristics.
E) breeds with its own species.
9) Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system?
A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains.
B) There are three distinctly different sets of metabolic reactions.
C) There are three distinctly different Gram reactions.
D) Some bacteria live in extreme environments.
E) There are three distinctly different types of nuclei.
10) A biochemical test, in the microbiology world, is used to determine
A) staining characteristics.
B) amino acid sequences of enzymes.
C) nucleic acid-base composition of DNA sequences.
D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Chapter 11 The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
1) Which of the following are found primarily in the intestines of humans?
A) gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
B) aerobic, helical bacteria
C) facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
D) gram-positive cocci
E) endospore-forming rods
2) What is group “c.” in the key shown in Figure 11.1?
A) bacteroidetes
B) chlamydiae
C) fusobacteria
D) planctomycetes
E) spirochaetes
3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic inherent of the non-endospore-forming gram-positive rods?
A) are aerotolerant
B) carry out fermentative metabolism
C) display a branched filamentous morphology
D) nonpathogenic
E) lack cell walls
4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Neisseria?
A) requires X and V factors
B) cocci
C) gram-negative
D) oxidase-positive
E) Some species are human pathogens.
5) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can be easily differentiated in a laboratory by which one of the following?
A) cell shape
B) Gram stain reaction
C) growth in high salt concentrations
D) ability to cause disease
E) glucose fermentation
6) Which of the following genera is an anaerobic gram-negative rod?
A) Escherichia
B) Staphylococcus
C) Bacteroides
D) Treponema
E) Neisseria
7) Which of the following do you expect to be MOST resistant to high temperatures?
A) Bacillus subtilis
B) Eschericia coli
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Streptococcocus pyogenes
8) Which of the following is NOT an enteric?
A) Salmonella
B) Shigella
C) Escherichia
D) Enterobacter
E) Campylobacter
9) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of spirochetes?
A) possess an axial filament
B) gram-negative
C) helical shape
D) easily observed with brightfield microscopy
E) found in the human oral cavity
10) You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing an organic substrate and nitrate in the absence of oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. You can be sure that this bacterium is
A) gram-positive.
B) using anaerobic respiration.
C) a chemoautotroph.
D) a photoautotroph.
E) a photoheterotroph.
Chapter 12 The Eukaryotes: Fungi, Algae, Protozoa, and Helminths
1) Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE?
A) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.
B) Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs.
C) Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores.
D) Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition.
E) Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions.
2) Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE?
A) They are heterotrophic.
B) They are multicellular animals.
C) They have eukaryotic cells.
D) All are parasites.
E) Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal.
3) Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE?
A) They form hyphae.
B) They produce zoospores in a sporangium.
C) They cause plant diseases.
D) They have chlorophyll.
E) They reproduce sexually.
4) Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they
A) are aerobic.
B) can tolerate low-moisture conditions.
C) prefer a neutral environment (pH 7).
D) have a fermentative metabolism.
E) cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure.
5) Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?
A) Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.
B) Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga.
C) Lichens are often the first life form to colonize rock or soil.
D) The algal partner produces carbohydrates that are absorbed by the fungal partner.
E) The fungal partner provides a means of attachment and protects the algal partner from desiccation.
6) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Basidiomycota — basidiospores
B) Ascomycota — conidiospores
C) Zygomycota — sporangiospores
D) microsporidia — lack mitochondria
E) anamorphs — lack spores
7) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Penicillium?
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 2 and 6
D) 1 and 4
E) 4 and 6
8) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Rhizopus?
A) 1 and 2
B) 6 and 7
C) 2 and 8
D) 1 and 4
E) 7 and 8
9) In Table 12.1, which is a thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
E) None of the answers is correct.
10) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are asexual spores?
A) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7
B) 2, 3, 6, 8
C) 1, 3, 5, 8
D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
E) All of the spores are asexual.
Chapter 13 Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
1) How do all viruses differ from bacteria?
A) Viruses are filterable.
B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.
C) Viruses do not have any nucleic acid.
D) Viruses are not composed of cells.
E) Viruses do not reproduce.
2) Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals?
A) They are not composed of cells.
B) They are filterable.
C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host.
D) They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals.
E) They are chemically simple.
3) Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?
A) They are composed of carbohydrate-protein complexes.
B) They are used for attachment.
C) They may cause hemagglutination.
D) They bind to receptors on the host cell surface.
E) They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
4) Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?
A) biochemical tests
B) morphology
C) nucleic acid
D) size
E) number of capsomeres
5) Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?
A) laboratory animals
B) culture media
C) embryonated eggs
D) animal cell cultures
E) bacterial cultures
6) Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps?
A) attachment
B) penetration
C) uncoating
D) biosynthesis
E) release
7) The definition of lysogeny is
A) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.
B) lysis of the host cell due to a phage.
C) the period during replication when virions are not present.
D) when the burst time takes an unusually long time.
E) attachment of a phage to a cell.
8) A viroid is a(n)
A) complete, infectious virus particle.
B) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid.
C) capsid without nucleic acid.
D) provirus.
E) infectious protein.
9) In Figure 13.1, which structure is a complex virus?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) All of the structures are complex viruses.
10) The structures illustrated in Figure 13.1 are composed of
A) DNA.
B) RNA.
C) DNA or RNA.
D) Capsomeres.
E) viroids.
Chapter 14 Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
1) A commensal bacterium
A) does not receive any benefit from its host.
B) is beneficial to its host.
C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen.
D) isn’t capable of causing disease in its host.
E) always causes disease in its host.
2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Both members are harmed in a symbiotic relationship.
B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host.
D) Symbiosis always refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other.
E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
3) A nosocomial infection is
A) always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization.
B) acquired during the course of hospitalization.
C) always caused by medical personnel.
D) only a result of surgery.
E) always caused by pathogenic bacteria.
4) The major significance of Robert Koch’s work is that
A) microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.
B) diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another.
C) microorganisms can be cultured.
D) microorganisms cause disease.
E) microorganisms are the result of disease.
5) Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Koch’s postulates?
A) Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies.
B) Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions.
C) Some human diseases have no other known animal host.
D) Some diseases are not caused by microbes.
E) Some diseases are noncommunicable.
6) Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?
A) botulism
B) tuberculosis
C) measles
D) the common cold
E) diphtheria
7) Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission
A) occurs when a pathogen is carried on the feet of an insect.
B) involves fomites.
C) involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission.
D) requires direct contact.
E) works only with noncommunicable diseases.
8) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
A) endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population
B) epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world
C) pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time
D) sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally
E) incidence: number of new cases of a disease
9) Focal infections initially start out as
A) sepsis.
B) bacteremia.
C) local infections.
D) septicemia.
E) systemic infections.
10) The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can be directly attributed to
A) increased use of antibiotics.
B) improved handwashing.
C) vaccinations.
D) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms.
E) None of the answers is correct.
Chapter 15 Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
1) The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
A) mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
B) mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.
C) skin.
D) parenteral route.
E) All of these portals are used equally.
2) The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host’s antibodies is called
A) antigenic variation.
B) lysogenic conversion.
C) virulence.
D) cytopathic effect.
E) cytocidal effect.
3) Most pathogens that gain access through the skin
A) can penetrate intact skin.
B) just infect the skin itself.
C) enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.
D) must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate.
E) must be injected.
4) The ID50 is
A) a measure of pathogenicity.
B) the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population.
C) the dose that will kill some of the test population.
D) the dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population.
E) the dose that will kill 50 percent of the test population.
5) All of the following contribute to a pathogen’s invasiveness EXCEPT
A) toxins.
B) capsules.
C) cell wall components.
D) hyaluronidase.
E) coagulases.
6) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Leukocidins destroy neutrophils.
B) Hemolysins lyse red blood cells.
C) Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells.
D) Kinase destroys fibrin clots.
E) Coagulase destroys blood clots.
7) Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally FALSE?
A) They are more potent than endotoxins.
B) They are composed of proteins.
C) They are resistant to heat.
D) They have specific methods of action.
E) They are produced by gram-positive bacteria.
8) Endotoxins are
A) associated with gram-positive bacteria.
B) molecules that bind nerve cells.
C) part of the gram-negative cell wall.
D) excreted from the cell.
E) A-B toxins.
9) Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin?
A) A-B toxin
B) hemolysin
C) leukocidin
D) streptolysin O
E) streptolysin S
10) Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to
A) viral infections.
B) protozoan infections.
C) fungal infections.
D) bacterial infections.
E) helminthic infections.
Chapter 16 Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
1) Innate immunity
A) is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens.
B) is nonspecific and present at birth.
C) involves a memory component.
D) involves T cells and B cells.
E) provides increased susceptibility to disease.
2) All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT
A) multiple layers of cells.
B) tears.
C) saliva.
D) HCl.
E) the “ciliary escalator.”
3) The function of the “ciliary escalator” is to
A) propel inhaled dust and microorganisms toward the mouth, away from the lower respiratory tract.
B) remove microorganisms from the gastrointestinal tract.
C) remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.
D) trap microorganisms in mucus in the upper respiratory tract.
E) trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucus and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract.
4) Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
A) eosinophils
B) erythrocytes
C) macrophages
D) basophils
E) neutrophils
5) TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT
A) AMPs.
B) flagellin.
C) LPS.
D) PAMPs.
E) peptidoglycan.
6) A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT
A) the total number of white blood cells.
B) the numbers of each type of white blood cell.
C) the number of red blood cells.
D) leukocytosis.
E) leukopenia.
7) The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway after the point in the cascade where the activation of ________ takes place.
A) C1
B) C2
C) C3
D) C5
E) C6
8) All of the following increase blood vessel permeability EXCEPT
A) kinins.
B) prostaglandins.
C) lysozymes.
D) histamine.
E) leukotrienes.
9) A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?
A) mucociliary escalator
B) normal skin flora
C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
D) acidic skin secretions
E) lysozyme
10) Margination refers to
A) the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms.
B) the chemotactic response of phagocytes.
C) adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.
D) dilation of blood vessels.
E) the movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels.
Chapter 17 Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
1) What type of immunity results from vaccination?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) artificially acquired active immunity
E) artificially acquired passive immunity
2) What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) artificially acquired active immunity
E) artificially acquired passive immunity
3) What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) artificially acquired active immunity
E) artificially acquired passive immunity
4) Which of the following is the best definition of epitope?
A) specific regions on antigens that interact with T-cell receptors
B) specific regions on antigens that interact with MHC class molecules
C) specific regions on antigens that interact with haptens
D) specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies
E) specific regions on antigens that interact with perforins
5) Newborns’ immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of
A) innate immunity.
B) naturally acquired active immunity.
C) naturally acquired passive immunity.
D) artificially acquired active immunity.
E) artificially acquired passive immunity.
6) Which of the following statements is NOT a possible outcome of antigen-antibody reaction?
A) clonal deletion
B) activation of complement
C) opsonization
D) ADCC
E) agglutination
7) Which of the following cells is NOT an APC?
A) dentritic cells
B) macrophages
C) mature B cells
D) natural killer cells
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are APCs.
8) When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as
A) agglutination.
B) opsonization.
C) ADCC.
D) apoptosis.
E) neutralization.
9) CD4+ T cells are activated by
A) interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.
B) interaction between TCRs and MHC II.
C) cytokines released by dendritic cells.
D) cytokines released by B cells.
E) complement.
10) Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?
A) TC cell
B) B cell
C) TH cell
D) natural killer cell
E) basophil
Chapter 18 Practical Applications of Immunology
1) All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT
A) toxoids.
B) parts of bacterial cells.
C) live, attenuated viruses.
D) inactivated viruses.
E) antibodies.
2) Patient’s serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus?
A) agglutination
B) hemagglutination
C) complement fixation
D) hemolysis
E) hemagglutination-inhibition
3) A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The patient may have the disease.
B) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.
C) The patient may have been vaccinated.
D) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.
E) The patient was near someone who had the disease.
4) In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up. Tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer?
A) 6
B) 1:6
C) 64
D) 1:32
E) 32
5) An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means that the test
A) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
B) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
C) detects 90 percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results.
D) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
E) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
6) Which of the following are sources of antibodies for serological testing?
A) vaccinated animals
B) cells producing monoclonal antibodies
C) viral cultures
D) vaccinated animals and cells producing monoclonal antibodies
E) vaccinated animals, cells producing monoclonal antibodies, and viral cultures
7) A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.
8) A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.
9) A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an antigen—antibody reaction is called a(n)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.
10) A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n)
A) subunit vaccine.
B) conjugated vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
E) live whole-agent vaccine.
Chapter 19 Disorders Associated with the Immune System
1) All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT
A) it occurs in the presence of an antigen.
B) it is synonymous with “allergy.”
C) it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time.
D) it is due to an altered immune response.
E) it requires previous exposure to an antigen.
2) The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are
A) found in basophils and mast cells.
B) antibodies.
C) antigens.
D) antigen-antibody complexes.
E) the proteins of the complement system.
3) Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?
A) hay fever
B) asthma
C) shock
D) hives
E) immunodeficiency
4) Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+?
A) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh
B) anti-A, anti-Rh
C) anti-A
D) anti-B, anti-Rh
E) anti-B
5) Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible?
A) autograft
B) allograft
C) isograft
D) xenotransplant
E) All of these types of transplant are equally compatible.
6) When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a person with O type blood
A) has O type antigens on their red blood cells.
B) will lack plasma antibodies to A and B type antigens.
C) will lack A and B red blood cell antigens.
D) lacks HLA and MHC antigens.
E) will have anti-O antibodies in their plasma.
7) Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n)
A) skin graft.
B) bone marrow transplant.
C) blood transfusion.
D) Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus.
E) corneal transplant.
8) A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
A) delayed cell-mediated immunity.
B) autoimmunity.
C) acute contact dermatitis.
D) psoriasis.
E) innate immunity.
9) A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with
A) tumor-specific antigens.
B) CTLs.
C) CTLs and activated macrophages.
D) activated macrophages.
E) CD+ T cells.
10) The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to
A) destruction of the antigen.
B) complement activation.
C) phagocytosis.
D) antibodies against self.
E) cytokines.
Chapter 20 Antimicrobial Drugs
1) Penicillin was considered a “miracle drug” for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) it was the first antibiotic.
B) it does not affect eukaryotic cells.
C) it inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis.
D) it has selective toxicity.
E) it kills bacteria.
2) A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against
A) gram-positive bacteria.
B) gram-negative bacteria.
C) fungi.
D) wall-less bacteria.
E) mycobacteria.
3) Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against
A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) fungi.
D) protozoa.
E) All of the answers are correct.
4) Antimicrobial peptides (AMPs) frequently work by
A) inhibiting protein synthesis.
B) disrupting the plasma membrane.
C) complementary base pairing with DNA.
D) inhibiting cell-wall synthesis.
E) hydrolyzing peptidoglycan.
5) In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike?
A) Both are broad spectrum.
B) Both are resistant to penicillinase.
C) Both are resistant to stomach acids.
D) Both are bactericidal.
E) Both are based on β-lactam.
6) Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal?
A) aminoglycosides
B) cephalosporins
C) polyenes
D) rifampins
E) penicillin
7) Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A) bacitracin
B) cephalosporin
C) monobactam
D) penicillin
E) streptomycin
8) Figure 20.1
The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, as shown by the dark black bar on the right portion of the diagram in Figure 20.1. The effect is to
A) prevent attachment of DNA.
B) prevent peptide bond formation.
C) prevent transcription.
D) stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA.
E) interfere with the attachment of the tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex.
9) Figure 20.2
The antibiotic chloramphenicol binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in Figure 20.2. The effect is to
A) prevent mRNA-ribosome binding in eukaryotes.
B) prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.
C) prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes.
D) prevent transcription in prokaryotes.
E) prevent ribosome formation in bacteria.
10) Which of the following antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects?
A) streptomycin
B) tetracycline
C) penicillin
D) erythromycin
E) chloramphenicol

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