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Test Bank For The Practice of Nursing Research 7th Edition, Grove. Note: This is not a text book. Description: ISBN-13: 978-1455707362, ISBN-10: 1455707368.

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Test Bank Practice Nursing Research 7th Edition, Grove

MULTIPLE CHOICE
Chapter 1: Discovering the World of Nursing Research
1. Nurses with a bachelor’s degree in nursing can participate in the implementation of evidence-based protocols in practice. This means that the BSN nurse
a. Develops evidence-based guidelines
b. Designs research studies, on which protocols may be based
c. Evaluates and revises evidence-based protocols
d. Contributes practice wisdom when applying protocols in patient settings
e. Mentors PhD researchers in the clinical setting during protocol development
2. Research is designed to test the idea of providing companion dogs to elders in a major hospital, in order to determine the effect upon the elders’ level of orientation. (The dogs’ level of orientation will not be a focus of the research.) This type of study can do which of the following?
a. Control
b. Describe
c. Explain
d. Predict
3. A researcher wants to find out whether children with autism who are hospitalized on a pediatric ward will require more hours of nursing care than average children when the parents or caregivers are not present. What type of research outcome does this provide?
a. Control
b. Description
c. Explantation
d. Prediction
4. A researcher who desires to determine the cause-and-effect relationship between requiring that all children under the age of 8 will ride in special care harnesses and the subsequent rate of children’s spinal cord injury will consequently utilize which form of nursing research?
a. Descriptive research
b. Outcomes research
c. Qualitative research
d. Quantitative research
5. Despite the presence of an intraventricular drain, the intracranial pressure of an ICU neuro patient remains increased. The nurse recalibrates the machine, makes sure the monitor is on the same level as the drain, checks all connections, and then notifies the physician, who comes to the unit and inserts a new drain. What type of reasoning prompts the nurse to recalibrate, ensure proper placement, and check connections?
a. Abstract reasoning
b. Concrete thinking
c. Logistic reasoning
d. Reality testing
6. A nurse with considerable clinical expertise develops a policy for managing agitated patients in the emergency department. The resultant policy emanates from
a. Abstract reasoning
b. Concrete thinking
c. Logistic reasoning
d. Reality testing
7. A nurse with considerable clinical expertise develops a policy for managing agitated patients in the emergency department. The type of reasoning the nurse uses to do this is _____ reasoning.
a. Problematic
b. Operational
c. Logistic
d. Inductive
8. What is the best explanation of intuition that forms a legitimate source of knowledge in nursing?
a. It is based on knowledge thoroughly incorporated into thought but seldom articulated.
b. It is based on a gift from the universe and should be honored when it arrives.
c. It is never inaccurate.
d. It is a revisiting of old knowledge, accompanied by deep reflection.
9. Why is operational reasoning necessary for research?
a. Abstract concepts are of no use to nursing.
b. Standard interventions are obtained from operational reasoning.
c. It allows the researcher to measure the concepts studied.
d. It facilitates the researcher’s rapport with families.
Chapter 2: Evolution of Research in Building Evidence-Based Nursing Practice
1. In which way did Florence Nightingale contribute to evidence-based practice?
a. She conducted research on outcomes and the power of nursing for change.
b. She was the first woman elected to the Royal Statistical Society.
c. She gathered data that changed the care of hospitalized soldiers.
d. She calculated mortality rates under varying conditions.
2. If a nurse manager wants to study how well last year’s policies governing implementation of a “bundle” of interventions to prevent cross-contamination of MRSA have been working in her units, which of the following strategies would she use?
a. Outcomes research
b. Intervention research
c. Ethnographic research
d. Experimental research
3. A researcher publishes a paper describing how faith, pain, adherence to therapy, and meditation interact during the rehabilitation process. The description of the process is based on many interviews the researcher conducted with persons during and following rehabilitation experiences. The methodology is
a. Ethnography
b. Phenomenology
c. Historical research
d. Grounded theory
4. A panel of researchers conducts several studies, all drawn from an existent hospital and clinic database. The studies focus on quality and effectiveness within that system. The specific studies address mortality rates in elders within a year after hip fracture, functional outcomes six months after admission to a neurosurgical ICU after traumatic brain injury, rate of nurse injuries in an emergency department, and number of patient falls on various floors of the hospital. What type of research is this?
a. Experimental research
b. Outcomes research
c. Ethnographic research
d. Grounded theory research
5. A researcher designs a study. It depends on questionnaires for data, it has a clear purpose statement, it provides its results as a narrative without statistical analysis, and it makes general suggestions for practice. What type of research is this?
a. Qualitative research
b. Outcomes research
c. Intervention research
d. Quantitative research
6. A newly employed nurse administrator wants to know more about the employees on the units the administrator supervises. The manager accesses the managerial database and gathers data about all of the current employees on the unit, including work shift, number of years employed, age, gender, educational preparation, certifications, work history, and professional accomplishments. What type of research is this?
a. Descriptive research
b. Correlational research
c. Quasi-experimental research
d. Experimental research
7. A human resources employee performs research focusing on the professional lifespan within the institution of nurses, and trying to discover whether their choice of work area is connected with the number of years they work in the institution. What type of research is this?
a. Descriptive research
b. Correlational research
c. Quasi-experimental research
d. Experimental research
8. In an attempt to assess whether selection of a same-gender psychiatrist leads to better mental health outcomes, clients newly referred for mental health services are told they may choose their mental health physicians. Later, measures of mental health are performed. What type of research is this?
a. Descriptive research
b. Correlational research
c. Quasi-experimental research
d. Experimental research
9. In a rehabilitation unit, patients are randomly assigned to high fiber diets versus ordinary fiber diets, in order to measure the effect on constipation. What type of research is this?
a. Descriptive research
b. Correlational research
c. Quasi-experimental research
d. Experimental research
10. A researcher uses interviews with two or three open-ended questions to study women in the staging phase of breast cancer treatment, in order to understand their experiences and the meanings they attribute to those experiences. What type of research is this?
a. Phenomenologic research
b. Grounded theory research
c. Ethnographic research
d. Historicism
Chapter 3: Introduction to Quantitative Research
1. A researcher conducts a study to determine the effectiveness of a special program of sensitivity training for nurse managers upon several outcomes, all related to the staff’s ability to identify and intervene appropriately when medication errors occur. This is an example of what type of quantitative research?
a. Applied research
b. Basic research
c. Descriptive research
d. Qualitative research
2. A researcher randomly assigns a large group of subjects who are hospital patients either to receive magnesium at bedtime or not to receive magnesium at bedtime, and then measures sleep quality and duration. What type of research is this?
a. Correlational research
b. Experimental research
c. Descriptive research
d. Quasi-experimental research
3. What is the research problem?
a. This study was undertaken to explore the effect of massage on total hours of sleep per 24-hour day, in persons averaging fewer than 7 hours of sleep per night, attributable to insomnia.
b. It was posited that provision of daily late-morning massage would affect total hours of sleep per 24-hour day.
c. It was taken as established fact that massage is pleasant, that research subjects getting fewer than 7 hours of sleep per night were sleep-deprived, and that endorphins mediated the changes observed.
d. Presumably by increasing endorphin levels, massage seems to provide an immediate relaxation and an ability to sleep immediately following the session, but it is unclear whether these benefits actually extend to total sleep, despite anecdotal support.
4. What is the research framework?
a. It was taken as established fact that massage is pleasant, that research subjects getting fewer than 7 hours of sleep per night were sleep-deprived, and that endorphins mediated the changes observed.
b. Presumably by increasing endorphin levels, massage seems to provide an immediate relaxation and an ability to sleep immediately following the session, but it is unclear whether these benefits actually extend to total sleep, despite anecdotal support.
c. It was posited that provision of daily late-morning massage would affect total hours of sleep per 24-hour day.
d. The study’s causational explanation was based on the physiologic matrix of McCarthy, which includes effects of endorphins on sleep, learning ability, pain, digestive function, and cardiac output.
5. What is the research assumption?
a. This study was undertaken to explore the effect of massage on total hours of sleep per 24-hour day, in persons averaging fewer than 7 hours of sleep per night, attributable to insomnia.
b. It was posited that provision of daily late-morning massage would affect total hours of sleep per 24-hour day.
c. It was taken as established fact that massage is pleasant, that research subjects getting fewer than 7 hours of sleep per night were sleep-deprived, and that endorphins mediated the changes observed.
d. Presumably by increasing endorphin levels, massage seems to provide an immediate relaxation and an ability to sleep immediately following the session, but it is unclear whether these benefits actually extend to total sleep, despite anecdotal support. The claim that massage increases total hours of sleep has been inadequately researched.
6. What is the research purpose?
a. This study was undertaken to explore the effect of massage on total hours of sleep per 24-hour day, in persons averaging fewer than 7 hours of sleep per night, attributable to insomnia.
b. It was posited that provision of daily late-morning massage would affect total hours of sleep per 24-hour day.
c. Presumably by increasing endorphin levels, massage seems to provide an immediate relaxation and an ability to sleep immediately following the session, but it is unclear whether these benefits actually extend to total sleep, despite anecdotal support. The claim that massage increases total hours of sleep has been inadequately researched.
d. The study’s causational explanation was based on the physiologic matrix of McCarthy, which includes effects of endorphins on sleep, learning ability, pain, digestive function, and cardiac output.
7. What is the research question?
a. This study was undertaken to explore the effect of massage on total hours of sleep per 24-hour day, in persons averaging fewer than 7 hours of sleep per night, attributable to insomnia.
b. It was posited that provision of daily late-morning massage would affect total hours of sleep per 24-hour day.
c. Does massage increase the total number of hours of daily sleep?
d. Presumably by increasing endorphin levels, massage seems to provide an immediate relaxation and an ability to sleep immediately following the session, but it is unclear whether these benefits actually extend to total sleep, despite anecdotal support.
8. A researcher conducting a study to examine linkages among age, gender, driver’s license suspension, and zip code poverty, educational level, and income, sourced from the records of the State Department of Motor Vehicles, is using which of the following types of research?
a. Descriptive research
b. Correlational research
c. Problem solving
d. Triangulation
9. A student completes her master’s thesis on correlates of depression in retired airline pilots, and it is shelved in the library. Has this student communicated her research findings?
a. Yes, because the thesis is in the library and can be accessed.
b. No, because the findings have not been made available to persons who will utilize them.
c. Yes, because the students in this particular master’s program often discuss their work in progress.
d. No, because if the findings do not appear in print in a nursing journal, they have not been communicated.
10. Hospital nurses are observed in order to determine exactly how long nurses swab IV ports with alcohol. Because they are being observed, they “scrub the hub” longer than they ordinarily would have. This is an example of what concept relevant to quantitative research?
a. Bias
b. Control
c. Inaccurate operationalization of variables
d. Hawthorne effect
Chapter 4: Introduction to Qualitative Research
1. What does the “grounded” in grounded theory mean?
a. Small pieces of data are “ground up” in the analysis process.
b. The theory that emerges is “grounded” in real-world data.
c. No theory is groundless.
d. All data must be “on the ground” and written out fully.
2. An ethnographic researcher plans to study organizations and how they promote or suppress individual effort. What type of ethnography will the researcher select?
a. Classical ethnography
b. Systematic ethnography
c. Interpretive ethnography
d. Critical ethnography
3. Why is the Sunshine Model of ethnonursing more specific to health than other ethnography models?
a. It was created by a nurse.
b. It values the point of view of the individual.
c. It focuses on factors that impact health.
d. It explains how various levels of culture interact.
4. A researcher investigates the fact that women with chronic pain are more apt to be treated for depression than are men with chronic pain. Which qualitative strategy will most likely be used to study this topic?
a. Grounded theory
b. Exploratory-descriptive qualitative research
c. Phenomenology
d. Critical research
Chapter 5: Research Problem and Purpose
1. A researcher has conducted 9 clinical studies, some quantitative and others qualitative, all of which focus on depression’s relationship to perceived abandonment. “Depression’s relationship to perceived abandonment” is an example of which of the following?
a. Research problem
b. Research topic
c. Research purpose
d. Problem statement
2. Why is replicating a research study essential for knowledge development?
a. Each time a study is replicated, its probability of error decreases.
b. Reproducing a study decreases theoretical knowledge, increasing real knowledge.
c. Replication helps confirm that the initial results were not reached in error.
d. Replication studies represent the majority of published nursing literature.
3. A nurse researcher working in a subacute orthopedic hospital floor. She notes that her elders with knee replacements sleep as many as 16 hours a day, waking only for physical therapy and meals, but she also notices that those with many visitors sleep fewer hours and seem to experience more pain. She wonders whether sleep in elders after knee replacement prevents pain, or whether elders select the coping strategy of sleeping more, in response to pain, and begins to attempt to identify the relationship between the two. A literature search reveals only three descriptive studies on this topic, one quantitative and two qualitative. What is “the relationship between elders’ hours of sleep following knee replacement and its relationship with report of pain”?
a. The research aim
b. The research purpose
c. The research problem
d. The research topic
4. A master’s student who works in cardiothoracic ICU reads a 20-year-old nursing research study; the findings document use of much larger per-kilogram amounts of opioids and anxiolytics postoperatively in adults with open-heart surgery, as opposed to children with open-heart surgery. The student strongly suspects that modern hospitals medicate children and adults more or less the same, on a per-kilogram basis. She decides to replicate the original research in her hospital. What type of replication is this?
a. Exact replication
b. Concurrent replication
c. Systematic replication
d. Approximate replication
5. A research study contains the question, “Can the application of twice-daily cortisone in the period from 6 to 10 weeks postoperatively produce significantly increased range of motion in 50- to 60-year-old rotator-cuff repair patients at the six-month mark?” The study is _____ research.
a. Ethnographic
b. Historical
c. Experimental
d. Basic
6. A knowledge gap is identified by a nurse researcher. Which of the following may NOT necessarily represent a knowledge gap?
a. A literature search that shows that no quantitative research, but only qualitative research, exists in the area.
b. The National Institutes of Health (NIH) identify the area as one of research priority.
c. The phenomenon of interest is a new disease, just identified in Phoenix, Arizona.
d. There is one study examining a new intervention, but the research has not yet been replicated.
7. Which of the following represents a concise, clear statement of the specific goal or aim of a research study?
a. The research problem was identified as the general area of ignorance surrounding the causation and diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis, especially among soldiers in uniform, and this constituted a significant gap in the literature.
b. The purpose of the project, then, was to define changes in the variable of hypertension across time, with the four most prevalent treatment modalities prescribed by primary care physicians in the greater Chicago area.
c. The phenomenon of depression experienced by the primary schoolchild was focused upon in this study. It is an under-researched topic, especially since recent research has identified correlational links with childhood obesity, especially Hispanic and African-American populations.
d. Despite the fact that studying the disease, especially from standpoints of prevention and early detection, is costly and time-consuming, it represents a clear priority, since treatment itself is remarkably costly and the afflicted are not likely to experience even short remissions without early intervention.
8. What is the relationship between a research topic and a research problem?
a. The purpose is the most general statement; the research topic is the most specific to the research itself.
b. Research topics contain numerous potential research problems, and each problem provides the basis for developing many purposes.
c. The research topic and the research problem are identical.
d. The research topic specifies setting and population, but the problem does not.
9. Which of the following is the practicing nurse’s most important source of researchable problems?
a. The nurse’s own clinical practice
b. Review of the literature
c. Nursing theories
d. Administrative mandates to conduct clinical research on every hospital unit
Chapter 6: Review of Relevant Literature
1. Which of the following would be landmark research?
a. The discovery that during pancreatitis, the pancreas is actually digested by its own enzymes
b. A description of the importance of injecting immunizations in the proper location of the deltoid
c. The third in a series of four papers describing patterns of emergency room use in vacation communities
d. The first paper on the effect of using insulin for type I diabetes in humans
2. A publication is printed every two months. Its volume number coincides with its year of publication (2008 = 1; 2009 = 2; 2010 = 3; etc.). Its issue number coincides with the order of publication, within a given year (Jan–Feb = 1; Mar–Apr = 2; etc). What kind of a publication is this?
a. A monograph
b. A periodical
c. An e-book
d. A serial
3. The type of literature that describes concept analyses, models, and frameworks is which of the following?
a. Empirical
b. Applicable
c. Able to be replicated
d. Theoretical
4. What primary sources might be available to someone writing a biography of Queen Elizabeth I, who died in the 17th century?
a. An interview with one of her maids-in-waiting
b. A previous history written about her
c. An article about her in a 17th-century publication
d. A diary written by her
5. What is the purpose of the minimal review of relevant studies that the grounded theory researcher undertakes before writing the research proposal?
a. It compares the anticipated findings with the findings of similar research.
b. It directs the researcher in how to strategize data collection.
c. It helps the researcher to identify previous findings that will assist in interpretation of the planned study.
d. It reveals the need for the planned research by identifying what others have done.
6. In terms of the literature review, how are quantitative research and ethnographic research similar?
a. Both require the researcher to review the literature before beginning the study.
b. Both require the researcher to review the literature after completion of data analysis.
c. Both require the researcher to utilize the literature as the primary data source.
d. Both consider the literature review extraneous, postponing it until after the study is published.
7. Considering phenomenologists’ belief that experience constitutes reality, how does their approach to the literature review dovetail with that belief?
a. The literature is exactly as real as the other research data, and it is all analyzed and valued equally during the data analysis portion of the study.
b. If the literature reports other phenomenologists’ findings, based on experience, these can be considered alternative data sources.
c. The literature is a false interpretation of reality and cannot be considered, either before or after data analysis is complete.
d. The literature review is usually postponed until after data analysis completion, so that the understanding of the phenomenon will emanate solely from the data.
8. In historical research, what is the reason that the literature review begins so early and extends so far into the process?
a. Historians must include exact dates in their histories. The literature must be checked and double-checked, in order to verify the correctness of these dates.
b. Historical research demands one extra stage of data review, just prior to publication, since new published data could bring the results under scrutiny.
c. Historians develop their ideas for research proposals from reading other histories. As discrepancies arise, these provide the ideas for research.
d. The literature essentially comprises the bulk of the data set. From this, plus other artifacts and interviews, if available, the historian writes the story.
9. Why would the Boolean article OR be used if a researcher is conducting a digital literature search of journals on the topic of prolonged adolescent grieving after parental loss?
a. It focuses the search on parental loss, the last search term.
b. It is useful when a researcher is undecided.
c. It narrows the search to articles containing all terms.
d. It allows the researcher to enter the search terms without excluding those whose authors did not “keyword” all the words of the topic.
10. The original quotation in the fictional text by Atchison, Topeka, and Santa Fe (2009) is as follows:
“Because of overemphasis on academic excellence, especially test grades, the high schools studied had a disproportionate number of students who reported sleeplessness, nervousness, nightmares, and guilt. These were attributed to various factors, the most significant of which was a very strict principal, who voiced open disapproval of students she felt were underachieving their enormous academic potential. Parents were very accepting of this behavior, echoing it in their interactions with the students.”
What is the acceptable way to properly attribute this content in a literature review?
a. Parents were very accepting of the principal’s behavior, which included voiced disapproval of underachieving students, echoing it in their interactions with their sons and daughters.
b. Because of overemphasis on academic excellence, especially test grades, the high schools studied had a disproportionate number of students who reported sleeplessness, nervousness, nightmares, and guilt. These were attributed to various factors, the most significant of which was a very strict principal, who voiced open disapproval of students she felt were underachieving their enormous academic potential. Parents were very accepting of this behavior, echoing it in their interactions with the students. (Atchison, Topeka, & Santa Fe, 2009).
c. As compared with other high schools, Atchison, Topeka, and Santa Fe (2009) reported a higher incidence of distress manifestations, such as nightmares and nervousness, in a strictly college-prep school with an extremely disapproving principal, who verbally berated students for less-than-expected academic performance.
d. High schools with disapproving authority figures have a higher incidence of somatization (see Atchison et al, 2009).
Chapter 7: Frameworks
1. What is a framework?
a. The abstract, logical structure of meaning
b. A concept at a high level of abstraction with a very general meaning
c. An integrated set of defined concepts, existence statements, and relational statements that can be used to describe, explain, predict, or control that phenomenon
d. A diagram that expresses the interrelationships of concepts and statements
2. What is a concept?
a. The abstract, logical structure of meaning
b. A term that abstractly describes and names an object, a phenomenon, or an idea, thus providing it with a separate identity of meaning
c. An integrated set of defined concepts, existence statements, and relational statements that can be used to describe, explain, predict, or control that phenomenon
d. A diagram that expresses the interrelationships of concepts and statements
3. What is a construct?
a. The abstract, logical structure of meaning
b. A concept at a high level of abstraction with a very general meaning
c. An integrated set of defined concepts, existence statements, and relational statements that can be used to describe, explain, predict, or control that phenomenon
d. A term that abstractly describes and names an object, a phenomenon, or an idea, thus providing it with a separate identity or meaning
4. What is concept analysis?
a. Evaluation of the interrelationships of the concepts and statements in a framework
b. The process of describing and naming a previously unrecognized concept
c. Modifying conceptual definitions from other disciplines to be consistent with nursing usage
d. A strategy through which a set of characteristics essential to the connotative meaning of a concept is identified
5. What is concept synthesis?
a. Creations of the interrelationships between concepts and statements in a framework
b. The process of describing and naming a previously unrecognized concept
c. Modifying conceptual definitions from other disciplines to be consistent with nursing usage
d. A strategy through which a set of characteristics essential to the connotative meaning of a concept is identified
6. What is concept derivation?
a. The process of distilling meaning from concepts and statements in a framework
b. The process of describing and naming a previously unrecognized concept
c. Modifying conceptual definitions from other disciplines to be consistent with nursing usage
d. A strategy through which a set of characteristics essential to the connotative meaning of a concept is identified
7. What is a conceptual model?
a. A model made up of constructs, between which a relationship may or may not exist
b. A set of highly abstract, related constructs
c. An integrated set of defined concepts, existence statements, and relational statements that can be used to describe, explain, predict, or control that phenomenon
d. A diagram that expresses the interrelationships of concepts and statements
8. What is a conceptual map?
a. A model connecting objects, phenomena, or ideas
b. A set of highly abstract, related constructs
c. An integrated set of defined concepts, existence statements, and relational statements that can be used to describe, explain, predict, or control that phenomenon
d. A diagram that expresses the interrelationships of concepts and statements in a framework
9. What is a theory?
a. The abstract, logical structure of meaning
b. A concept at a high level of abstraction with a very general meaning
c. An integrated set of defined concepts, existence statements, and relational statements that can be used to describe, explain, predict, or control that phenomenon
d. A diagram that expresses the interrelationships of concepts and statements
10. An author makes a hypothetical relational statement, linking seven concepts to a central idea, and denoting which ones are causes and which are results. The hypothetical relational statement is called a
a. Theoretical map
b. Point of view
c. Hybrid correlational array
d. Framework
Chapter 8: Objectives, Questions, Hypotheses and Study Variables
1. Which of the following is the research objective?
a. To answer the research question
b. To determine the strength of the statistical relationship among the variables
c. To determine whether homeless children seem to have longer length of hospital stay, poorer verbal skills, and more fear of separation from their parents than do other children
d. To measure length of stay, verbal skills, and fear of separation from parents in homeless children admitted to the hospital
2. What is the research question?
a. Length of hospital stay, verbal skills, and fear of separation from parents have no relationship to children’s homelessness.
b. Does children’s homelessness affect length of hospital stay, verbal skills, and fear of separation from parents?
c. Was homelessness related to length of hospital stay, verbal skills, and fear of separation from parents in this study?
d. Is homelessness in children related to length of hospital stay, verbal skills, and fear of separation from parents?
3. What is the research hypothesis?
a. Longer length of hospital stay, worse verbal skills, and fear of separation from parents are caused by children’s homelessness.
b. Homelessness in children is related to length of hospital stay, verbal skills, and fear of separation from parents.
c. There is no relationship between children’s homelessness and length of hospital stay, verbal skills, and fear of separation from parents.
d. If a child is homeless, that child is likely to have poor verbal skills, more difficulty separating from parents, and a longer hospital stay.
4. A researcher identifies three variables and formulates a hypothesis that links them. That hypothesis is testable. What does it mean that the hypothesis is testable?
a. All the variables in the hypothesis are measurable.
b. The hypothesis must be replaced by a research question.
c. The value of the hypothesis is low.
d. The hypothesis is causational.
5. A stimulus or activity that is measured to examine the effect created by the independent variable best describes a(n) _____ variable.
a. Independent
b. Demographic
c. Extraneous
d. Dependent
6. The intervention that the researcher manipulates is the _____ variable.
a. Independent
b. Demographic
c. Extraneous
d. Dependent
7. It is important for the researcher to identify extraneous variables so that
a. All of the extraneous variables can be manipulated by the researcher.
b. The findings can be explained as clearly and truthfully as possible.
c. The research results are not critiqued unfairly.
d. The extraneous variables have no influence on the dependent variable.
8. Simple descriptive statistics may be used to depict the sample characteristics, reflecting demographic variable values, in which kind of research?
a. Quantitative research only
b. Qualitative research only
c. Both quantitative and qualitative research
d. Only when data has been extracted from an electronic database
9. In the following hypothesis, what is the independent variable?
Patients with recurrent bowel obstruction due to Crohn’s disease who are assigned to be treated in an emergency room complain less frequently of pain and require less pain medication than those patients admitted, in the usual fashion, and treated on a medical floor.
a. Bowel obstruction due to Crohn’s disease
b. Place treated
c. Number of complaints of pain
d. Number of doses of pain medication
10. In the following purpose statement, what kind of variable is number of days absent from class?
The purpose of this study was to examine the effects of a generous weekly allowance and twice-weekly text messages from parents on number of days absent from class, in freshman college students.
a. Demographic variable
b. Independent variable
c. Extraneous variable
d. Dependent variable
Chapter 9: Ethics in Research
1. A research study offers elderly men who have, in the past, been prison inmates $1,500 for participation in an all-day workshop at which they agree to be hypnotized and tell stories of incarceration, which are later published. The research participants are allowed to listen to the tapes of what they say under hypnosis and to withdraw permission to use any part of the information. Why is this scenario a violation of self-determination?
a. Allowing participants to withdraw permission to use part of the research information violates the study integrity and represents deception.
b. It is an example of coercion.
c. Prisoners are a vulnerable population and should not be used as research subjects.
d. What is said under hypnosis may not be true.
2. A researcher working for Google collects data on fair treatment in the workplace. He attempts to attach one of the raw data forms to a message to himself, so that he can finish the data analysis at home that evening, but accidentally sends it to another employee who had provided data for the study. The two employees, coincidentally, have an identical opinion about fair treatment in the workplace. This best describes an example of a violation of which of the following human rights?
a. Confidentiality
b. Fair treatment
c. Protection from harm
d. None of these—no ethical violation occurred, because the two subjects share a point of view.
3. In a study of outpatients experiencing panic attacks, a researcher was working in a busy clinic waiting room and left his computer to consent a new study participant. A transcription of a patient interview was displayed, and at the end of the transcription was the patient’s medical record number and a list of medications currently taken. The researcher had not closed down the screen, and when he returned to his computer, he found an adult patient playing a video game on the computer. This best describes an example of a violation of which of the following human rights?
a. Protection from the harm of exposure
b. Security
c. Confidentiality
d. Privacy
4. Ellen is a participant in a research study. She will receive either the customary medication to treat her metastatic colon cancer or a new medication that has shown better results in animal studies and one small human study. This is _____ research.
a. Coercive
b. Correlational
c. Therapeutic
d. Dangerous
5. A graduate student receives a mailed survey asking her to participate in research about unpleasant experiences in graduate school. She is asked to return the survey, and the instructions say, “Return of this instrument implies consent.” Why does this constitute consent?
a. Studies like this are exempt from institutional review board oversight, so consent is not required.
b. Not returning the survey constitutes refusal, and subjects may indeed refuse by not completing the survey. The opposite is equally true.
c. The study is anonymous, so there is no risk of disclosure.
d. Only interventional research requires consent.
6. Both a subject in an experimental group who receives an experimental treatment and a subject in a control group who receives a control treatment are considered to be subjects in therapeutic research. Why is this?
a. A patient in an experimental research study who elects to be a member of the experimental group knows he or she will be receiving the experimental treatment.
b. Each patient who is consented to be a research subject in an experimental study in which the treatment has potentially beneficial results has the potential to receive a therapeutic intervention.
c. The research is designed to measure the effect of the therapeutic treatment as compared with the usual therapeutic treatment; hence, this is therapeutic research.
d. Each subject is blind to treatment.
7. In what way could the researchers in the Willowbrook study have designed their research on the hepatitis virus so that it was ethically acceptable?
a. The researchers could have given each participant a chance to assent.
b. The researchers could have performed their study on persons who were capable of full assent.
c. The researchers could have made the study available at many institutions for the mentally retarded.
d. The researchers could have performed descriptive research on persons already infected with hepatitis.
8. The right an individual has to be told that he is a potential participant in a research study and may decide not to be so best defines which of the following human rights?
a. Beneficence
b. Justice
c. Privacy
d. Self-determination
9. The right an individual has to receive treatment even if he decides not to participate in the research best defines which of the following human rights?
a. Beneficence
b. Justice
c. Privacy
d. Respect
10. To take positive action to prevent any harm to the research subjects best defines which of the following principles?
a. Beneficence
b. Justice
c. Privacy
d. Respect
Chapter 10: Understanding Quantitative Research Design
1. What is the best research approach for investigating the actual representation of Hispanic managers within health care institutions, and the workplace beliefs and prejudices that perpetuate their disproportionate representation?
a. Triangulated approach
b. Quantitative approach
c. Qualitative approach
d. Outcomes approach
2. What is the principal disadvantage of triangulated research?
a. Its results are difficult to understand.
b. Because of its complexity, researchers from different research traditions may collaborate to produce a triangulated study.
c. The time required to complete a triangulated project is approximately double that of completing one that utilizes only one method.
d. Publication opportunities are limited.
3. Causality is tested through which of the following?
a. Grounded theory
b. Experimentation
c. All quantitative research
d. Triangulated studies
4. Why is selection of an appropriate design for a research study important?
a. If the design is an incorrect one, the researcher will examine variables and their interactions in a way that does not answer the research question.
b. The design provides a blueprint or diagram that appears in the concept map.
c. If there is no design, critique is impossible.
d. If the design is appropriate, the researcher can eliminate error.
5. Thirty patients with psoriasis are treated with ultraviolet light B phototherapy, delivered by a therapist. Their symptoms become worse at first, and then improve. During the summer their symptoms become better without treatment. Then fall arrives, and symptoms worsen. Patients go back to UVL B, and they improve. Why, according to Hume, can the relationship between UVL B phototherapy and symptom severity not be considered a classically causal one?
a. Ultraviolet light B phototherapy wasn’t invented during Hume’s lifetime.
b. There must be a strong relationship between the proposed cause and the effect.
c. The cause (phototherapy) has to be present whenever the effect occurs.
d. The cause must precede the effect in time.
6. John Stuart Mill’s insistence that in order for causation to be demonstrated, there must be no alternative explanation for why a change in one variable leads to a change in the other variable. This concept of alternative explanations is the idea that underlies which type of validity?
a. Statistical conclusion validity
b. Internal validity
c. Construct validity
d. External validity
7. John Stuart Mill and the essentialists insisted that a cause be necessary and sufficient for an effect to occur. In a modern study alcohol dependency is found to lead eventually to permanent liver damage, except when the alcoholic consumes a diet plentiful in the B-vitamins. In addition, liver damage can emerge in the absence of alcohol dependency. What would John Stuart Mill and essentialists say about the causative relationship between alcohol dependency and liver damage?
a. The proposed cause is necessary, but not sufficient.
b. The proposed cause is neither necessary nor sufficient.
c. The proposed cause is sufficient, but not necessary.
d. The proposed cause is both necessary and sufficient.
8. Random selection of 300 subjects yields a sample, but demographic analysis of that sample reveals that there are 99 teachers in the sample, despite the fact that there are far fewer than 33% teachers in the total sample. The sample can be said to be
a. Biased
b. Controlled
c. Multicausal
d. Based on probability
9. The researcher divides his lab rats into two groups and administers IV methamphetamine to one of the groups, in order to determine its effect on the fear-flight response. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Bias
b. Control
c. Correlation
d. Multicausality
10. A researcher is comparing a new and less expensive treatment with an established treatment, in hopes of showing that there is no difference in outcome. The researcher does not perform a power analysis and, consequently, selects a sample size that is smaller than what would be recommended for an analysis of variance. The results show that there is no significant difference in outcome between the two treatments. Which type of validity is affected by this?
a. Statistical conclusion validity
b. Internal validity
c. Construct validity
d. External validity
Chapter 11: Selecting a Quantitative Research Design
1. How does a comparative descriptive design differ from a typical descriptive design?
a. It compares statistics between the current time and an earlier time, whereas the typical descriptive design focuses on only one time period.
b. It compares a number of variables and examines the relationship between them, whereas a typical descriptive design never does this.
c. It differs in name only; both have the same design.
d. It describes data from two different groups, whereas a typical descriptive design focuses on a single group.
2. Why is the threat of subject attrition more problematic in longitudinal designs than in other types of descriptive research?
a. Subjects are elderly.
b. Data analysis is complex, and missing data points necessitate dropping the subject from the analysis.
c. Data collection occurs over a much longer period of time.
d. There is selection bias because of the study requirements.
3. What do cross-sectional designs, trend designs, and event-partitioning designs have in common?
a. They all study subjects at one time.
b. They all focus on change over time.
c. They all involve data collection over months or year.
d. They are identical to longitudinal designs.
4. The difference between a randomized block design and the more modern variant of including the extraneous variable in a multivariate analysis is which of the following?
a. The potentially extraneous variable is treated as an ordinal variable in the randomized block design but can be considered as a ratio or interval variable in a multivariate analysis.
b. In a multivariate analysis, the extraneous variable is excluded from analysis.
c. In a randomized block design two to three times as many subjects were required for statistical analysis.
d. In a randomized block design, the sample is chosen so that it lacks the potentially extraneous variable.
5. A factorial design study measures the effect upon hemoglobin levels of four independent variables, each administered randomly and independently. How many distinct groups are there in this factorial design?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16
6. The following diagram represents what type of design?
Group Subject selection Measurement Treatment Measurement
Experimental R M T M
Comparison NR M M
a. Posttest only design
b. Factorial design
c. Pretest-posttest control group design
d. Time series design
7. Nurses who give discharge teaching to patients after colonoscopy call these patients the day after the procedure to check on their status. At that time, patients who have had polyps removed invariably ask how long it will be until they receive their results. The nurses decide to design a study in which they will change their discharge teaching, in order to include information about the timeframe for biopsy results, and measure the results, comparing them with the results for the next month, before the change. Which of the following types of research will they use?
a. Correlational
b. Quasi-experimental
c. Experimental
d. Descriptive
8. Several television programs, such as American Idol, allows viewers to text in votes for their favorite performer. From a research point of view, this is what kind of a design?
a. Survey
b. Predictive design
c. Model testing design
d. One-group pretest-posttest design
9. If a one-group pretest-posttest study uses subjects as their own controls, which is the study design?
a. Experimental
b. Quasi-experimental
c. Correlational
d. Descriptive
10. Identify the type of research design employed in the following study: “In order to determine nursing students’ stress throughout the four semesters of the major, nursing students in all four semesters were surveyed as class groups at the mid-point of two contiguous semesters of coursework. Stress was assessed by a researcher-composed quantitative questionnaire.”
a. Cross-sectional design
b. Longitudinal design
c. Event-partitioning design
d. Case-study design
Chapter 12: Qualitative Research Methodology
1. In addition to the aim or goal of the study, the purpose statement for a qualitative study should include The phenomenon of interest, the population, and the
a. Setting
b. Rationale for conducting the study
c. Theoretical framework used
d. Hypothesis
2. In contrast to quantitative research study participants who are selected to be as representative of a population as possible, qualitative research participants are selected because they
a. Are philosophically attuned to the use of narratives and narrative analysis as the best means to convey their experience to the researcher and to others
b. Meet the requirements for involvement in the study that the researcher specified at the outset of the study’s implementation
c. Also are representative of the population
d. Have experienced the phenomenon of interest
3. All of the following statements related to sample size are true characteristics of qualitative methodology except for which of the following?
a. The criterion of theoretical sufficiency is used to determine when the sample size is adequate.
b. Samples used in qualitative research are typically much smaller than in quantitative research.
c. The criterion of data saturation is used to determine when the sample size is adequate.
d. When asked to indicate in an institutional review board (IRB) proposal how large the sample will be, the qualitative researcher should indicate between 25 and 50 subjects to capture an adequate sample.
4. The qualitative researcher’s awareness of personal biases and past experiences that might influence his or her responses to participants or their data so that the data can be honestly and intellectually analyzed is termed
a. An etic view
b. Reflexivity
c. A co-constructive process
d. An emic view
5. Probing is a strategy used in interviews to
a. Make it clear that the interviewer is in charge.
b. Limit the range of responses.
c. Elicit more information in a specific area.
d. Ensure a variety of interpretations of the question by different subjects.
6. A clinical nurse at a large urban hospital has decided to conduct a descriptive qualitative study related to staff nurses’ perceptions of the causes of various types of violence against nurses in their facility. As part of his research design, he hosts a series of focus groups with staff nurses during each of three shifts. What is considered the main advantage of using a focus group strategy as opposed to one-on-one interviews for data collection?
a. Individuals who are alike on some characteristic are more likely to feel safer or less anxious expressing their views, especially with difficult experiences, when participating in a focus group rather than in a one-on-one interview.
b. Focus groups allow the researcher to gather a lot of information in a short time.
c. Focus groups require less planning than one-on-one interviews do, because interviewers should talk little and listen more.
d. It is more efficient and less expensive to transcribe one interview with several participants rather than to transcribe several individual interviews.
7. What is the typical size and duration of a focus group interview?
a. 4 to 12 participants; 3 1/2 hours
b. 3 participants; 30 minutes
c. At least 12 participants; 3 hours
d. 4 to 12 participants; 45 to 90 minutes
8. If a researcher decides to transcribe a recorded one-hour interview or focus group in order to better understand her data, she might need to spend up to how much time creating a verbatim transcript?
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 6 hours
9. The role of the facilitator involves all of the following except to
a. Encourage group members to go beyond the current discussion or debate to encourage sharing of perspectives.
b. Instruct participants that all points of view are valid and helpful and to not ask speakers to defend their positions.
c. Prepare for the facilitation experience by developing a few preconceived ideas about the topic in order to direct the discussion most effectively.
d. Reflect on inconsistencies among the views of participants and with their own thinking.
10. A researcher is interested in studying the experiences of gay (G), lesbian (L), and transgender (T) youth in the middle school setting. With parental consent and the students’ assent to participate, she provided a group of 12 students with disposable digital cameras and had them each take 15 photos that illustrate their experiences, both positive and negative, as a GLT adolescent. The researcher then developed the photos and asked participants to discuss what they documented. This is an example of what type of qualitative data collection technique?
a. Thick description
b. Photovoice or photo novella
c. Participatory research
d. Data immersion
Chapter 13: Outcomes Research
1. Sampling in outcomes studies differs from that in traditional quantitative research in several ways. Which of the following is true?
a. A heterogeneous sample is preferred.
b. A random sample is required.
c. A small, focused sample is artificially assembled.
d. The sample is selected before an intervention occurs.
2. A preference for type I error, as compared with type II error, in outcomes research means that
a. The outcomes researcher is not particularly concerned with drawing incorrect conclusions.
b. The outcomes researcher would rather identify a possible connection that doesn’t end up being true than miss something.
c. The outcomes researcher would rather establish definite causation than an indefinite connection.
d. Patients usually don’t recognize what quality of care really is.
3. A researcher is studying the likely occurrence rate of secondary cancers after a new schedule of chemotherapy for childhood leukemia, using a biochemical marker obtained by blood draw six months after the initiation of chemotherapy. What is the rationale for using this marker as a proximate outcome, rather than counting the actual rate of secondary cancers?
a. Research on recurrent cancers in children labels them as vulnerable, causing psychological harm.
b. The final endpoint is not obtainable over a reasonable span of time, since secondary cancers can occur at any age.
c. Most proximate endpoints are unreliable variables and should not be used unless there are no final endpoints.
d. The researcher is not interested in whether children suffer a secondary malignancy; the researcher is merely interested in the marker value.
4. Which of the following is a prospective cohort study?
a. All of the children in Toledo, Ohio, are weighed and measured to obtain an accurate statistic for malnutrition occurrence.
b. A physician’s records are analyzed to identify how many of his patients have remained in his care for more than 20 years.
c. The citizens of a city experiencing a nuclear accident are tracked for cancer occurrence.
d. A database is accessed to identify mortality rate in patients with sepsis.
5. A hospital has recently converted to an “80% BSN staff” policy.” In service of this goal, all newly hired nurses are expected to hold at least a bachelor’s degree in nursing. Within the area of outcomes research, the variable “educational preparation of nurses” is what kind of a variable?
a. Practice profile
b. Structure of care
c. Process of care
d. Outcome of care
6. A study examines the careers of hospital nurses who opt for retirement before the age of 55, examining their education, work shift, and final work area, and the religion in which they were raised. This is an example of which type of study?
a. Prospective cohort
b. Retrospective cohort
c. Population-based
d. Cost-effectiveness analysis
7. A nurse manager designs a research study to examine nurse workload stress, work shift, number of years in the nursing profession, number of medication errors, patient falls, and after-shift overtime, as the relate to one another. What is the most likely method the manager will use to study this?
a. Analysis of change
b. Analysis of improvement
c. Analysis of variance
d. Multilevel analysis
Chapter 14: Intervention-Based Research
1. Intervention research shifts the focus from causal connection to causal explanation. What does this mean?
a. It allows correlational research determining connection to stand in the place of causal explanation.
b. It provides theoretical explanations of why an independent variable produces an effect, rather than merely reporting findings.
c. It may use studies that establish causal connection as impetus points, but it proceeds on to descriptive research whenever possible, to explain.
d. It utilizes experimental research, whenever possible, to establish cause definitively.
2. Why may intervention research involve the efforts of an entire project team?
a. A multidisciplinary team provides the grounding, objectivity, and world wisdom to judge whether an intervention really has clinical merit.
b. Each member of the team carries out a separate research project at a different site, so that the results can be multi-site and more readily generalizable.
c. Institutional review boards will not approve intervention projects unless they are backed by an entire team, including representatives from both nursing and medicine.
d. It is rare for one person to be imaginative, clinically current, expert at marketing, skilled in statistics, and adept at both quantitative and qualitative research.
3. The presence of drop-down oxygen masks on airplanes represents the process of intervention research. During their development, a prototype was designed and refined. What was the final stage of the testing process for drop-down oxygen masks?
a. Testing of oxygen masks was initiated on several actual consumer airline flights.
b. An analysis was made of all notes made by the intervention team during meetings.
c. Oxygen masks already in use on commercial airlines were revised, according to the original protocol specifications.
d. Oxygen masks were tested in labs on human volunteers.
4. Why is treatment fidelity such a major concern in intervention research?
a. If treatment fidelity is not maintained, it has a direct influence on statistical conclusion validity and power analysis, especially when samples are large.
b. The project team may differ about how an intervention is applied, and these varying ways of application must be discussed before marketing can occur.
c. Intervention research can take place over many months. It is important for internal validity that the intervention be applied in the same way every time.
d. Interventions, especially those involving products that are centered in the health care realm, must reflect the ethical standards of the profession.
5. In the process of interventional research on the efficacy of omega 3 fish oil in decreasing blood sugar in diabetic adults, which event would appear just before widespread dissemination?
a. A randomized clinical trial testing the effects of omega 3 fish oil on blood sugar in 300 ambulatory diabetic adults
b. Proof of the safety of the prescribed dose of omega 3 fish oil
c. Several replication studies of the effects of omega 3 fish oil on blood sugar in hundreds of ambulatory diabetic adults
d. Efficacy studies to establish outcome effects of omega 3 fish oil and optimal treatment regimens in adults
6. A research project shows that a new intervention involving hypnosis decreases PTSD dramatically in servicemen returning from the Middle East. Thirty-three percent of men and women so treated are functional in daily living and free from symptoms three weeks after treatment. Twenty percent of men and women treated remain free from symptoms at one year. Calculate the numbers needed to treat (NNT), both at three weeks and at a year.
a. The NNT at three weeks is 0.33; the NNT at one year is 0.20.
b. The NNT at three weeks is 1; the NNT at one year is 1.
c. The NNT at three weeks is 33; the NNT at one year is 20.
d. The NNT at three weeks is 3; the NNT at one year is 5.
7. Blinding to treatment involves not letting the patient know which intervention is being delivered. If the research subject who exercises daily because he is in the treatment group knows which treatment is being delivered, but the researcher and the research staff do not know, what type of condition exists?
a. Single blinding
b. Double blinding
c. Triple blinding
d. Unilateral unblinding
Chapter 15: Sampling
1. A researcher is studying sleep habits of household cats that belong to families with small children. The families live in urban areas. In this study, what are the elements?
a. Small children
b. Household cats
c. Families
d. Sleep
2. A researcher wants to increase the generalizability of a planned experimental study’s results. What can the researcher do, relative to sampling, that will achieve that goal?
a. Select a sample larger than that recommended by power analysis.
b. Purposively select a sample that is extremely heterogeneous.
c. Use random assignment.
d. Use random sampling.
3. A researcher studies spending habits of teenagers in strip malls. From what kind of population has the researcher selected her sample?
a. The accessible population
b. The entire population
c. The target population
d. The target sample
4. A researcher selects his sample in this way. He paints numbers on 100 ping-pong balls, and he paints half of them blue and half of them green. He puts the blue half onto a large tray, and the green half of them onto another large tray. Then he mixes each group and trains his dog to bring 10 balls from each tray to him, gently and systematically, one at a time. What type of sample is this?
a. Snowball
b. Random
c. Stratified random
d. Systematic
5. “Good morning. You have been selected randomly by our marketing department because of your recent purchase of McCarthy’s Natural Yogurt, several organic raw vegetables, and two types of tofu. As a woman with interest in safe and healthy products, we are asking you to participate in a brief telephone survey.” The discerning student will detect an error in the above statement. What kind of a sampling is this?
a. Random sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Systematic sampling
6. A graduate student has a close friend who is recovering from colon cancer and has a permanent colostomy. For her master’s thesis, the student decides to conduct qualitative research on adjustment to living with a permanent colostomy after colon cancer resection. She asks her friend if she has any idea of how to recruit participants for the research. Her friend tells her about a colon cancer support group to which she belongs and volunteers to bring a printout of the research study’s purpose and general description to the next support group meeting. If the researcher acquires all of her participants in this way, what is the method of sampling used?
a. Snowball sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Simple random sampling
7. A researcher has already written a study proposal and performed a power analysis, which indicates that the sample size will have to be at least 36 if a type II error is to be avoided. The researcher then decides to set the level of significance at p <.01 rather than p <.05 but wants to maintain power at 0.8. What will the researcher have to do in order to maintain sufficient power?
a. Increase the effect size.
b. Set beta at 0.60.
c. Use a different statistical test.
d. Increase the sample size.
8. A researcher studying depression in relation to five predictor variables decides to include five more variables in the study because the literature reveals that they may also be involved in depression. Consequently, the researcher will do which of the following?
a. Use a larger sample size.
b. Set beta at a lower level.
c. Perform additional reliability and validity tests.
d. Change the design of the research from correlational to descriptive.
9. How does effect size relate to instrument sensitivity?
a. If an instrument is sensitive, it will have a large effect size.
b. If an instrument is not very sensitive, it will take a large effect size for the instrument to detect a difference.
c. As an instrument is better calibrated and becomes more sensitive, it increases effect size.
d. If an instrument is extremely sensitive, it will detect a difference even when none exists; because of this effect sizes must be large.
10. A teacher is supposed to be randomly assigning her students to experimental and control groups, for participation in a learning project mandated by the school district. She has a master list of the alphabetized students, numbered 1 through 30. Which of the following is the most logical way to randomly assign the students to groups?
a. Put numbers 1 to 30 in a hat, draw them out one by one, and put them into alternating groups.
b. Place the first 15 subjects in one group and the last 15 in the other group.
c. Ignore numbers and let the students choose their groups.
d. Put numbers 1 to 30 in a hat, draw one, placing it in the experimental group. Then find a student with similar gender, attributes, and abilities, and put that one into the control group. Then go back to the hat for the next experimental subject.
Chapter 16: Measurement Concepts
1. A shepherd in the wilds of eastern Nevada is counting his sheep at the end of a work day. What is another term for what he is doing?
a. Estimating random error
b. Measuring
c. Using an interval level of measurement
d. Calculating risk ratios
2. What kind of reliability testing is used extensively in qualitative research?
a. Equivalence reliability
b. Stability reliability
c. External consistency
d. Internal consistency
3. Why would interrater reliability be measured in a quantitative research project?
a. A verbal quantitative questionnaire is filled out.
b. Behavior is observed and classified.
c. Phenomenology is the research method.
d. Distances are measured.
4. What is the purpose of determining an instrument’s internal consistency?
a. It establishes face validity.
b. It demonstrates that the instrument is measuring exactly what the researcher thinks it is measuring.
c. It decreases measurement error.
d. It is a way of establishing test-retest reliability.
5. A new tool and very short tool is developed. It is to be used instead of a previously validated tool that is very long to administer. What kind of validity concept will be used for testing this new tool?
a. Divergent validity
b. Convergent validity
c. Discriminant analysis
d. Content validity
6. Which one of the following instructions to the research subject will provide the highest possible level of measurement?
a. Indicate whether your income is above $20,000 a year or not.
b. What was your income last year: $0–$20,000; $20,000–$60,000; $60,000–$100,000; or more than $100,000?
c. What was your total income last year, before taxes? Enter amount: _____
d. Did you earn money last year?
7. A band is in on a multi-city tour, and souvenir shirts are ordered from a factory. They are shipped without the size labels. The vendor must then sort them into sizes—apparently they are small, medium, large, extra-large, and extra-extra-large. What level of measurement is this?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio
8. A secretary in a veterinarian’s office keeps track of how many animals come in for care in a week’s time and what types of animals they are: cat, dog, horse, gerbil, duck, snake, and so forth. What level of measurement is this?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio
9. Mark is in third grade and has just learned how to use a ruler to measure. He has become a measuring fool. He measures everything in the house, writing down all the measurements, and gaily announcing to his mom, “Hey, Mom. Guess what? The salt shaker is four and a quarter inches tall.” What level of measurement is this?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio
10. Depression is measured by the Beck Depression Inventory, which adds up scores from 21 items to provide a total value ranging from 0 to 63. What level of measurement is this?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio
Chapter 17: Measurement Methods Used in Developing Evidence-Based Practice
1. In a study of teasing among third-graders, after an intervention on peer interactions, behavioral observers collect the data, rating six behaviors on a 0- to 4-point scale. The observers are not trained by the same person, and there is no measure of interrater reliability. What is likely to happen?
a. The variable of teasing will not be measured accurately.
b. Peer interactions will not be able to be rated.
c. The data will have to be scored independently by the researcher.
d. Comparison with norms is unlikely.
2. A researcher plans to conduct interviews with the first four participants in a qualitative study, and then the researcher plans to have an assistant conduct several interviews for the remainder of the interviews. The first thing the researcher does with the research participants is to perform a pilot interview on one participant and to have the assistant conduct a pilot interview on a different participant, and then they compare notes, discussing the process. Why is this a good idea?
a. This establishes interrater reliability.
b. Their styles may differ, and this way they can imitate one another’s styles.
c. Pretesting of the interview protocol is essential.
d. They can begin the process of data analysis at once.
3. A researcher is interested in discovering whether the topics of written family complaints are shared by the majority of patients’ families in a major university hospital, or whether merely a minority of the patients’ families are disgruntled. The researcher goes throughout the hospital each day and hands family members a printed form and pencil and asks them to answer the ten questions, all of which have three to five responses, in return for a “$3 off” coupon to be used in the hospital cafeteria. What is this printed form called?
a. A questionnaire
b. A Likert scale
c. A semantic differential scale
d. An interview
4. An outpatient being treated in the infusion center for thalassemia is asked to fill out a form about satisfaction with the center, while he waits for his appointment. The form consists of five questions, each a statement, with six possibilities after it: Strongly Agree, Agree, Slightly Agree, Slightly Disagree, Disagree, and Strongly Disagree. This is an example of which of the following?
a. A semantic differential scale
b. A Likert scale
c. A questionnaire
d. A paper interview
5. A researcher constructs a semantic differential scale that will measure a topic about which people express extreme responses. He pilots it and, at the same time, asks a psychometrician to give his opinion on the scale. The psychometrician suggests that the researcher edit the scale, so that it has some questions for which a 1 or 2 would be a positive finding, and some questions for which a 1 or 2 would be a negative finding. The researcher edits the scale and finds that subjects’ responses are not quite as extreme as they were originally. What should the researcher’s response be?
a. Resentment. The new scale is giving weaker results, and its analysis will not be able to show statistical significance unless the projected sample size is increased.
b. Bewilderment. The scale is exactly the same; the items were merely rearranged. There is nothing that explains this change.
c. Gratitude. The new scale measures the concept better because the subjects are thinking about the individual items instead of marking extremes automatically.
d. Annoyance. The researcher has probably inadvertently reworded some of his original items, accounting for the less extreme values.
6. A nurse believes that patient acuity is a poor measure of patient fragility. Consequently, he and another nurse construct an instrument that measures patient fragility. In what order should the various steps of scale testing, conceptual definition, scale construction, instrument validation, and qualitative exploration occur?
a. Scale testing, qualitative exploration, scale construction, conceptual definition, instrument validation
b. Conceptual definition, qualitative exploration, scale construction, scale testing, instrument validation
c. Scale construction, conceptual definition, instrument validation, scale testing, qualitative exploration
d. Instrument validation, qualitative exploration, scale construction, conceptual definition, scale testing
e. Qualitative exploration, scale testing, scale construction, conceptual definition, instrument validation
f. Conceptual definition, instrument validation, scale construction, scale testing, qualitative exploration
7. A university that is publicly funded is located in a state that is experiencing serious budget shortfall, and the budget has been halved. The university’s 32 departments are asked to list each of their programs on an index card, resulting in 90 cards. A panel comprised of the president, provost, and five deans each independently arranges the cards into categories of 3 essential, 7 highly desirable, 15 very desirable, 40 mainstream, 15 expendable, 7 immediately expendable, and 3 targeted elimination. This is an example of which methodology?
a. Delphi technique
b. Semantic differential scale
c. Likert scaling
d. Q-sort method
8. How would a rating scale item be worded?
a. “I can be alone for hours and not feel lonely”: Strongly Agree, Agree, Undecided, Disagree, Strongly Disagree.
b. When I walk one block, I feel: (a) healthy and invigorated, (b) no different from the way I ordinarily feel, (c) pleasantly tired, (d) exhausted and out of breath.
c. Place a vertical line intersecting this line to show what your anxiety is; the scale’s ends are 0 for “No Anxiety at All,” and 10 for “The Worst Anxiety I Have Ever Experienced.”
d. Rank your boss from 1 to 7 on the following quality: sensitivity–callousness.
9. A Canadian researcher has had a tool published in English. The tool examines the embedded meanings of life in a country that has colonial roots but still maintains allegiance to the mother country. There is a demand for use of the tool in French-speaking Canadian cities. Which is the type of translation that is most appropriate for this tool?
a. Pragmatic translation
b. Aesthetic-poetic translation
c. Ethnographic translation
d. Linguistic translation
Chapter 18: Critical Appraisal of Nursing Studies
1. A reader of qualitative research notes that a study is identified as Heideggerian phenomenology. The purpose of the study was to explore the lived experience of the long-term process of separating from a longtime partner and subsequently marrying another person, and to elicit descriptions of the experience’s meaning. This topic is unexplored in the literature. The sample of 21 was randomly selected from 68 volunteers. Participants’ interviews were tape-recorded and transcribed, and then coded by two raters, whose inter-rater reliability was reported as 95%. The findings revealed that there was a lengthy period of adjustment following separation, and that participants filled this time by denying permanency, creating possibilities, appreciating silence, developing personal strengths, trusting, developing skepticism, “starting a new page,” and maintaining mental boundaries. The most immediate evaluative critique point about this article relates to which the following?
a. It is not clear what the findings contribute to the current body of knowledge.
b. The development and implementation of the study methodology is not congruent with its philosophical foundation.
c. Tape-recording, transcription, and coding by two raters is not likely to capture the essence of this experience, without video-recording and participant observation.
d. The findings do not seem to be a credible reflection of reality.
2. A nurse reader of qualitative research notes that a study is identified as grounded theory research. The topic of study is how women leave a violent relationship. The nurse reader herself has never been in a physically abusive relationship. She has, however, cared for several patients who have told her their personal stories, and she has a cousin who was in a physically abusive relationship for several months. Because of this, she has an immediate understanding and finds the results credible. What aspect of the evaluative criteria for qualitative research does this reflect?
a. Intellectual contribution
b. Intuitive comprehension
c. Methodological coherence
d. Philosophical congruence
3. What is the most accurate statement related to a study’s strengths?
a. A study’s strengths always involve a level of complexity—multiple research questions, many variables, many references.
b. A study’s strengths are essentially the elements of the study that the researcher completed in accordance with the design of the study.
c. A study’s strengths are determined by whether the research results are statistically significant or not.
d. A study’s strengths are determined by the number of times the article is cited by other authors.
4. In deciding whether a framework is suited to a study, what is the principal question the reader must answer?
a. Is a conceptual map provided?
b. Is this the best framework for this study?
c. Does the framework specify the study variables?
d. Is this a theory or merely a framework?
5. Why is the first prerequisite for appraising qualitative studies an appreciation for the philosophical foundation of qualitative research?
a. Understanding the research requires a detailed understanding of each qualitative methodology.
b. Qualitative research is not based on truth; it takes work for the reader to get past this stumbling block.
c. There is no common ground among the qualitative methods. Each requires individual study before reading a research report can be attempted.
d. All qualitative research has slightly different “ground rules.” Without an understanding of the philosophy of the method, appraisal is unfair.
Chapter 19: Evidence Synthesis and Strategies for Evidence-Based Practice
1. Which is the most accurate statement about translational research?
a. Translational research focuses on providing literal and readable translations of research in one of the primary 15 languages in which research is read.
b. Translational research is essentially evidence-based practice.
c. Translational research attempts to discover something useful in basic scientific discoveries.
d. Translational research is applied research based on basic research knowledge.
2. Nursing is said to be a science and an art. If best research evidence represents the science of nursing, what represents the art?
a. Clinical expertise
b. Patient values and needs
c. Synthesis of best research evidence
d. Eye-hand coordination
3. How is best research evidence produced?
a. By the conduct and synthesis of numerous high-quality studies in a health-related area
b. By the imaginations of creative health care workers, who design qualitative research that illuminates our understanding
c. By dissemination of important results at conferences
d. By publications that detail the newest advances in health care
4. How are evidence-based practice and best research evidence related?
a. With best research evidence publications, there is no evidence-based practice.
b. Both evidence-based practice and best research evidence are generated by research.
c. Best research evidence is the evidence on which practice is based.
d. Best research evidence includes five basic items, one of which is evidence-based practice.
5. If a “trigger” is defined as a condition of actual or potential harm to the patient, the nurses, or the institution, the Iowa model becomes a reactive problem-prioritization and problem-solving process. What is its tie-in with evidence-based practice?
a. The Iowa model addresses utilization of research findings at an individual level.
b. Individual nurses enact an Iowa decision tree when they examine risk-management data.
c. Available published evidence drives the process, as scholars review the literature and bring it forward for committee focus.
d. When evidence is available, it is used for problem-solving.
6. In the Iowa model, what is the focus of intervention?
a. The patient level
b. The family level
c. The institutional level
d. The conceptual level
7. A researcher locates twelve research studies that all examine the effect of a different cognitive-behavioral strategy for decreasing pain—hypnosis, distraction, focusing, music therapy, and so forth. Why would these twelve studies make a poor meta-analysis?
a. Cognitive-behavioral interventions are not a suitable focus for all patients, and consequently should not be studied.
b. Twelve studies would be too many for synthesis of any kind.
c. Secondary analyses of pooled data are not used for meta-analysis on pain, because of interindividual differences in perception.
d. The result, if statistically significant, will produce a general recommendation, “If in pain, do something cognitive-behavioral,” which is meaningless.
Chapter 20: Collecting and Managing Data
1. Planning as a step in the quantitative research process ends when the data collection has begun. Which is the true statement about planning in the qualitative research process?
a. Since sample size is not usually decided upon ahead of time, there is no practical reward to planning the qualitative research study ahead of time.
b. There is no planning in the qualitative research process; it all emanates from the data collected.
c. Everything about a qualitative study is planned ahead of time, except for analysis of the data.
d. The researcher may adapt strategies for data collection or analysis well into the study.
2. What is the general rule about collecting demographic data during an interview?
a. The mood of the qualitative interview, so crucial to quality data capture, may be intruded upon by demographic data collection.
b. In quantitative interviews, everything excerpted from medical records must again be verified in face interviews.
c. In qualitative interviews, routinely asking twenty or thirty demographic questions sets the stage for actual data collection.
d. If data can be obtained in other ways, leave the valuable interview time for actual interviewing.
3. A researcher is collecting data in a hospital during cardiopulmonary resuscitation. The researcher has devised a data collection form that contains five columns for data entry. During the first three data collection periods, the form works reasonably well, although the researcher has to turn the page over and write on the back. During the fourth, however, the CPR incident occurs in the emergency department and includes many procedures and interventions, and the researcher ends up taking a blank piece of paper and recording data on that. Later, it takes him 40 minutes to unscramble and collate the data and record it properly. What must be done now?
a. The researcher will go back to the institutional review board and request permission to use a different form.
b. The researcher will design a new form, with the assumption that the next CPR incident will be just as complex as the last was.
c. The researcher will continue to use the old form, writing on the back when necessary, and pulling out blank pieces of paper, from time to time, for additional data recording.
d. The researcher will decrease the amount of data necessary to record by revising the old study protocol, so that fewer research questions are asked.
4. The quantitative researcher collects many pieces of quantitative data as words, not numbers. Prior to statistical analysis, all of the data pieces must be coded. What does this mean?
a. The data are transformed into numerals corresponding to words, such as 0—no college degree, 1—bachelor’s degree, 2—master’s degree, 3—PhD or EdD.
b. The essence of each word is noted; later, these essences emerge as themes.
c. The data are typed into a computer, and the computer is instructed to transform the words into binary values, using only 0 and 1, by adding up the numbers of each letter in the alphabet.
d. The data regarding protected data are transformed to code names; a list is made and kept in a secure location.
5. A nurse is conducting her master’s thesis research in the unit in which she works as a staff nurse. The focus of her thesis is burned children’s pain, with versus without a child life specialist assisting the child. She is providing child life specialist presence every other day at the mid-morning dressing change. For obvious reasons, she wants to keep everything else consistent for the four contiguous days of data collection. On the second day of four, with the child life specialist present, one child demonstrates poor pain control. The nurse researcher would ordinarily advocate for more pain medication for this child, but if she does, she will not be able to compare the data with that of the previous day. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Serendipity
b. Subject as object
c. Role conflict
d. Passive resistance

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